In all poetry and other literature on the matter I keep on reading about the discrepantion between the heart and the mind. One logical and the other anything but.
Yet I find myself doubting Shakespeare and his most talented fellow writers.

For as I think that the heart is purely a slave of the mind. Nothing more than another sensory instrument like our other five senses. With the only difference being the two way communication channel.

If one has eliminated all heartly strings but when the mind refuses, really refuses, to forget that stimuli once held so dear. Will it then not be just rational to deduct from this mere fact that although it is the heart that, most of the time physically, aches, that it is truly the mind that weeps?